Hi Ken,
Thanks for your reply. I agree that Hesedken is
one of the leading authorities (the most important
of course being the Holy Scriptures) related to
issues about Gods commands concerning marriage,
fornication, adultery etc., which is precisely why
I posted this here. It is a real situation which I
described, not an hypothetical one.
Clearly from scripture if an unmarried man (one
who has never taken the virginity of any woman
previously) copulates with a non-virgin whose
first partner is still living that would be
adultery, otherwise it would be fornication. In
such a case this man would still be marriageable
before The Lord, since he had never taken the
virginity of any woman, providing he truly
repented of his sin. This sin can be forgiven by
God if there is true repentance, and no repetition
of this sin. However, the children referred to are
not from this first incident of sin.
This man (legally unmarried) then married a
woman who proved not to be a virgin, she having
previously given her virginity to another man at
her university whilst a student whom it happens
was a rake and a lecher, before she became a
believing Christian. However, in scripture and in
the analyses on the Hesedken site she would still
be joined in flesh, to that man who had taken her
virginity, before The Lord, and not in fact
married to her supposed legal husband? So my point
was that she and her now supposed legal husband
are not married before The Lord, but have been
living in serial adultery? [I believe this is what
Jesus referred to in Matthew 19, v 9. It may seem
surprising at first sight that Jesus referred to
"fornication" rather than "adultery",
since the two were married. What I believe Jesus
was referring to here was under the law of Moses,
that where a wife was found by the husband not to
be a virgin, having herself committed fornication
before the marriage, the husband could immediately
put her away, since she was not in fact
marriageable.]
Therefore, and presumably from what you state
in your post here you agree, they should now
repent and separate. The woman cannot return to
her original one flesh partner because he has
adulterously married another, so she must remain
celibate either until the man with whom she became
one flesh dies or for the rest of her life?
However the man, before The Lord, has never yet
been married, but has now committed serial
adultery it would seem. He must therefore now
separate himself from this woman, although he is
legally married to her. Presumably he should
therefore divorce her legally also?
However, then it seems that if the man truly
acknowledges his serial adultery with the woman as
sin and repents, he may marry a virgin or a widow,
without further committing adultery or
fornication? He would still of course have the
legally legitimate children resulting from this
adulterous situation of supposed legal marriage.
The issue of any supposed miscegenation I
believe must be considered completely separately.
The whole issue is an extremely difficult one I
believe now in the world today, particularly since
there is hardly anyone left of any race which can
be said to be completely pure and original, and
possibly no-one at all. The outcome of Genesis
Chapter 6 must be taken into account for a start.
It is also a matter of great conjecture as to how
the currently markedly different races (black,
brown, red, yellow and white) came about, since
all originated from Noah. For example the original
European settlers that went to the Americas were
not of pure stock. They were of much mixed blood,
and no doubt with some of the blood of the
original lost 11 tribes of Israel (Ephraim), taken
into Assyrian captivity, who never returned to
Israel. Since that there has been much more mixing
of races generally to the point where now it is
even difficult to recognize for example pure
Caucasian stock. We all know that it is now
possible due to past miscegenation for two
supposedly Caucasian individuals to marry and
suddenly they have a black baby, although they are
both supposedly white!
So in any case I believe that it is extremely
difficult to define what miscegenation in reality
is today amongst believers. It is generally clear
that for black and white or markedly different
skin colored races to intermarry is not
acceptable. Where two supposed Caucasians marry
and produce a black baby however it is in reality
the same situation; so would you state that in
such a situation they should separate from a
marriage in all other respects righteous before
The Lord, as if it were serial fornication? I do
not think that should be so.
With regard to Ezra Chapter 10 etc. these
prohibitions referred to the intermarrying of
Israel with non-Israelites. This was not so much a
matter of race as a matter of belief and worship
of God. In other words if a person of a different
race, but broadly of the same stock, was a
proselyte Israelite marriage was not prohibited,
if in all other respects it was honorable before
The Lord. For example, Moses married a Midianite
woman, Zipporah. God never condemned him for this
nor required him to separate himself from her. In
fact we can see just how genuine his wife's
obedience to God was in Genesis Chapter 4, v 24 to
27. It seems that Moses had neglected to
circumcise his firstborn son. This had made God so
angry that although He had instructed Moses to go
back to Pharaoh He met him on the way to slay him.
Yet Zipporah saved the day, since she recognized
at once what the problem was and she herself
circumcised their son with a sharp stone, and The
Lord let them go. Thus she was obedient in belief
and religious practice before God although a
Midianite.
Solomon was condemned by God not so much
because he took foreign wives but because they
were non-believing foreign wives, who led him
astray to their false gods. Then of course we have
the example of Hosea, whom God commanded to take a
whore as a wife, and to have children by her,
subsequently serially joining to whores to
demonstrate the whoredom of Israel.
In the New Testament it seems there is no
prohibition of marrying relative to
…[Message Truncated]
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